I struggle to even conceive of what a therapeutic context for one of these people would be, as well.
The logical conclusion to draw here is that these primitive folk, free from the inhibitory effects of western culture on movement probably wouldn't be walking around with any significant degree of mechanical deformation of nervous tissue. Why? because their culture doesnt suppress movement in a manner that leads to non pathological mechanical pain (as john pointed out).
So what happens if one provides a non threatening context and light touch to one of these folks? What does it mean if the person begins to move non-volitionally and report characteristics of correction? How would one interpret a lack of non volitional movement, and/or the absence of characteristics of correction
Do we now assume that the presence of non volitional movement and characteristics of correction means that the culture of these primitive people must be exerting its own suppression of instinctive movement (can you say confirmation bias)? would the absence of movement and characteristics of correction mean an absence of mechanical deformation of nervous tissue (confirmation bias again).
Or could we reasonably argue that the non volitional movement that occurs with light touch in this primitive "instinctive movement permitting" culture points away from a purported relationship between the non-volitional movement and the resolution of mechanical deformation of nervous tissue in our western (or any) culture?
Comment